Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 05:54

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What was the most challenging shift you experienced as an ER physician? Can you describe the details and reasons behind it?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How do the Sola Scrptura folks react to the Dead Sea Scrolls and other more recent discoveries of ancient Biblical texts not among those canonized by Martin Luther?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why do you think Islam oppresses women when Christianity clearly does it more?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.