Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 06:56
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Dejected Joshua Kimmich reacts to Germany’s Nations League defeat - Bavarian Football Works
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.